I am very confused by this, and I would really appreciate some clarity on it;
If you assess control risk as high, you would then require a higher sample size during your test of details, correct? And how does this relate to the actual testing of the controls, itself? ie. if control risk is high, would the samples you take when testing the actual control, would test LESS samples, or is there no correlation?
Also, my ninja notes say if there is a HIGH risk of assessing control risk too low, your sample size would go down (inverse relationship). I don't understand that; if there is a high risk that you're going to assess the control as too low, wouldn't you want to increase your substantive/detail testing? Or does "high risk of assessing control risk too low" mean "higher ACCEPTED risk?" Then, I feel like that would make sense.
Any help would be greatly appreciated!